The best chance is #3 because all he needs is take #1 + #2 divide by 2. e.g. #1+#2=28 then he take 14. This is the best chance to avoid being highest or lowest and worst case scenario is he equals #1 & #2. However because all 5 knows this simple theory so I think they all died because they all ended up picking the same number of beans.
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3 z0 F! d1 w5 {Starting from #1, he knows he cannot pick anything bigger then 49 because if he did, then #2 only have to leave 3 beans for #3 #4 & #5 then he'll live. e.g. #1 picked 53 then #2 picks 100-53-3=44. then A,C,D,E all died. e.g. #1=53, #2=(100-53-3)=44, #3=1, #4=1, #5=1. The best chance for #1 is to pick anything less then or equal the median 20 (100 divided by 5). In fact anything between 3-20 won't change the result. Let's say #1 pick 20.
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5 c" p/ A5 ]8 b: J+ }" M) R8 C- o5.39.217.76Now #2 knows whatever he picks, #3 will take the median between him & #1 e.g. now #1 picked 20, if he pick 6 then #3 will pick 13 putting him either being the lowest or highest. He cannot allow that so the best chance is to match #1, so he picked 20 as well.
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e1 j4 I$ S5 f% z5 t#3 did the obvious choice 40 divided by 2 =20, so he picked 20TVBNOW 含有熱門話題，最新最快電視，軟體，遊戲，電影，動漫及日常生活及興趣交流等資訊。# e3 M$ V8 p. \2 L7 O8 W
TVBNOW 含有熱門話題，最新最快電視，軟體，遊戲，電影，動漫及日常生活及興趣交流等資訊。6 X; }+ x5 e3 L5 H
#4 base on knowing the median rule take 60 divided by 3 =20, so he picked 20 as well.5.39.217.76+ b8 f0 x8 H( h9 k
- j6 ? r9 ?5 }0 E3 ~5.39.217.76#5 same as above, he takes 80 divided by 4 =20, picked 20 as well.5.39.217.76; R+ \6 _; e% J, k# n6 X
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Ended all have the same number and all died. |
發表於 2006-12-9 12:41 AM
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